Not sure which translation this is but, as with so many, it is a gross distortion of God's character. God never made anyone blind to show His glory. It would be totally inconsistent with His nature as shown by Jesus.
I very strongly believe that the following punctuation would give a totally different interpretation. Instead of "Jesus answered, “It was neither that this man sinned, nor his parents; but it was so that the works of God might be displayed in him." it should be: Jesus answered, “Neither that this man sinned, nor his parents; but so that the works of God might be displayed in him we must work the works of Him who sent Me as long as it is day…" There is no punctuation in the Greek nor the words "it was" This, with its traditional punctuation, stands alone in the NT as giving any hint that God afflicts someone for His glory. Those sort of ideas appear to have appeared with Augustine of Hippo many years later. Do we really believe that blind man suffered all those years for God's glory? I cannot do so when I look at Jesus!